The article conveniently skips the portion that the Maharajah Hari Singh agreed to the Indian Union and this was conveyed to and was informed and agreed to Mountbatten.
Secondly, the author is not sure of his facts, when he says
'However, whatever be the case the factual position is that; Maharaja Hari Singh was not in favour of State?¿½?¬?¢s accession to Indian Union therefore, he only requested the Indian government for military assistance without any pre-condition of accession...
Even if there is an instrument of accession between Maharaja Hari Singh and Indian government, it provides a number of safeguards to the state’s sovereignty, e.g. Clause 7 of the instrument says, Nothing in this instrument shall be deemed to commit me in any way to acceptance of any future constitution of India. Whereas, Clause 8 of the Instruments says, Nothing in this Instrument affects the continuance of my sovereignty in and over this state"
If there is no accession, then why did he request assistance from India , and not Pakistan for handling the agitation?
Reason is it is Pakistan who dispatched its forces overnight once they came to know of the Accession and Hari Singh, sought the help of India to drive the Pakistani forces.
As to the Agreement Clause quoted, it says that he (Hari Singh may not have anything to do with the Future Constitution of India.
Yes, once you accede to the Union, you have nothing to do with the Constitution as it is a Federal Subject.
As to his declaration that" nothing in this Instrument affects the continuance of my sovereignty in and over this state...
Once you have acceded the State , where is your Sovereignty?
One more point.
India is not naive to risk sending its troops to a State which does want any condition to Accession just to help him or worse to help Pakistan.
Well,how does one make Pakistan, a failed State. understand what a State , federal Government , for that What Democracy is?
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